Back to Questions
Want to know:
A 50-year-old female patient complains of aching pain in the lower abdomen. She has a history of normal menstrual cycle. At the age of 40, the patient underwent a surgery for gastric ulcer. Examination findings: abdomen is soft, in the hypogastrium there is a well-defined nodular tumor of limited mobility. Vaginal examination findings: the cervix is clean, of cylindrical shape. Body of the uterus cannot be palpated separately. On both sides of the uterus palpation reveals tight tumors with an uneven surface. The tumors are immobile andl fill the whole pelvic cavity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Get a detailed, AI-powered explanation for this question and thousands more on StudyFetch.
Get the Answer for FreeHow StudyFetch Helps You Master This Topic
AI-Powered Answers
Get instant, detailed explanations powered by AI that understands your course material.
Deep Understanding
Go beyond surface-level answers with step-by-step breakdowns and examples.
Personalized Learning
Spark.E adapts to your learning style and helps you connect ideas.
Practice & Test
Turn any question into flashcards, quizzes, and practice tests to solidify your knowledge.
Explore More Questions
- A 32 year-old lady has a diagnosis of fibroids and has been trying for a baby for 18 months. She has been under investigation at the sub-fertility clinic and no abnormality has been found except for three uterine fibroids, for which she does not have any symptoms. Her partner has had sperm analysis which found no abnormality. Which of the following treatments are most appropriate in this situation?a) myomectomyb) goserelin acetate (GnRH agonist)c) endometrial ablationd) uterine artery embolisatione) ulipristal acetate
- In the couple of years before menopause, what change may women see in there menstrual cycle?
- Caused by unopposed estrogenMost common cause of pre and postmenopausal abnormal bleeding