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A 64-year-old female is referred to physical therapy following a left total hip arthroplasty. The physical therapist notes that the patient demonstrates weakness in the left gluteus medius. Which gait abnormality is MOST likely based on the presented information?1.Ipsilateral hip hiking2.Contralateral hip hiking3.Ipsilateral hip drop4.Contralateral hip drop

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A physical therapist works with a 45-year-old male who was in good health prior to being diagnosed with Guillain-Barre syndrome two weeks ago. The patient was referred to outpatient physical therapy after a seven-day hospitalization. The patient did not experience respiratory involvement and had moderate weakness affecting all joints of the lower extremities. What would be the MOST likely long-term outcome for the patient?1.Independent at a wheelchair level in the home and community2.Independent at a wheelchair level in the community only3.Independent ambulation with an assistive device in the home and community4.Independent ambulation without an assistive device in the home and community

A physical therapist elects to use proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) techniques to help improve a patient's coordination with movement. Which of the following statements is MOST consistent with the PNF treatment approach?1.Extremity movement patterns should occur in the cardinal planes.2.Extremity movement patterns are named for the movement that occurs at the distal joint.3.PNF patterns consist of unilateral extremity movements only.4.Rotation is an important component of the movement patterns.

A physical therapist is treating a 45-year-old male who sustained a traumatic injury to his right shoulder while playing basketball one week ago. The patient presents with pain, inflammation, and muscle spasm globally in the shoulder. What is the MOST appropriate intervention?1.Grade I and II joint mobilizations2.Bent over rows with a light handweight3.Doorway stretches for the pectoralis major4.Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation patterns without resistance

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